by Cicero » Wed May 10, 2017 8:57 pm
> I've actually had these conversations several times on this forum, and they don't go anywhere.
I understand (and often share) your frustration. In view of your claim that you have deeply researched this issue I am optimistic that constructive debate is possible; if it does tend towards the "interminable" I am quite willing to bring it to an amicable close.
I also agree with you that just hurling "evidence" about randomly is pointless, so I suggest a more systematic approach. In the first place, let's concentrate on a single Gospel (at least to begin with); I suggest Matthew. In the second place, rather than going on forever about individual pieces of evidence, let me summarise the broad outline of my objection to your stated views and see how you respond to that, before going into particulars. (You are, of course, welcome to do the same)
Where the external evidence is concerned, I think you are overestimating the reliability of the early Church fathers. The extent to which you find this persuasive will probably depend on how much of their work you have read, but I for one am unimpressed by the general quality of the claims they make and that's not just because I'm an atheist. Some of the historical stuff Justin Martyr and Tertullian put into their apologies, for instance, sometimes with the general agreement of their Christian contemporaries, is quite unequivocally silly and displays a lack of critical thought which, although it doesn't wholly invalidate your argument from the unanimity of tradition, very much reduces its strength.
More seriously, however, you overlook the fact that in the case of Matthew, the "external evidence" gets some very important facts wrong. For instance, Church tradition, as far as I know, unanimously agrees 1) that Matthew wrote before Mark, and 2) that Matthew wrote in Hebrew. I assume you are aware that both of these claims are demonstrably false; consequently even on the basis simply of the external evidence, I'd say the most logical view would be that Papias (the first writer to ascribe Matthew to Matthew) simply misidentified the document.
It is, then, the internal evidence which must decide this issue. Now the stylistic profile of Matthew does indeed fit what we would have expected of a Jew from that period, but in terms of genre, if nothing else, it objectively does not fit the distinctive profile which eyewitness accounts from antiquity tend to have. Such accounts will, for instance, signal their nature as such by the use of the first person pronoun and the integration of the (named) eyewitness into the narrative itself.
The decisive argument, however, is Matthew's heavy literary dependency on Mark. Whatever eyewitnesses may or may not do, their accounts always offer a distinctive, personalised, often idiosyncratic perspective on events. Matthew does show a willingness to alter Mark, but almost always for structural, stylistic reasons and rarely in order to add material of his own. An eyewitness would have added details. Matthew doesn't. In fact, Matthew makes no changes to Mark a writer in the second century with access to oral sources could not have made. Consequently, the balance of probabilities, in my view, is very strongly in favour of the view that the traditionally assigned name is a misattribution.
> I've actually had these conversations several times on this forum, and they don't go anywhere.
I understand (and often share) your frustration. In view of your claim that you have deeply researched this issue I am optimistic that constructive debate is possible; if it does tend towards the "interminable" I am quite willing to bring it to an amicable close.
I also agree with you that just hurling "evidence" about randomly is pointless, so I suggest a more systematic approach. In the first place, let's concentrate on a single Gospel (at least to begin with); I suggest Matthew. In the second place, rather than going on forever about individual pieces of evidence, let me summarise the broad outline of my objection to your stated views and see how you respond to that, before going into particulars. (You are, of course, welcome to do the same)
Where the external evidence is concerned, I think you are overestimating the reliability of the early Church fathers. The extent to which you find this persuasive will probably depend on how much of their work you have read, but I for one am unimpressed by the general quality of the claims they make and that's not just because I'm an atheist. Some of the historical stuff Justin Martyr and Tertullian put into their apologies, for instance, sometimes with the general agreement of their Christian contemporaries, is quite unequivocally silly and displays a lack of critical thought which, although it doesn't wholly invalidate your argument from the unanimity of tradition, very much reduces its strength.
More seriously, however, you overlook the fact that in the case of Matthew, the "external evidence" gets some very important facts wrong. For instance, Church tradition, as far as I know, unanimously agrees 1) that Matthew wrote before Mark, and 2) that Matthew wrote in Hebrew. I assume you are aware that both of these claims are demonstrably false; consequently even on the basis simply of the external evidence, I'd say the most logical view would be that Papias (the first writer to ascribe Matthew to Matthew) simply misidentified the document.
It is, then, the internal evidence which must decide this issue. Now the stylistic profile of Matthew does indeed fit what we would have expected of a Jew from that period, but in terms of genre, if nothing else, it objectively does not fit the distinctive profile which eyewitness accounts from antiquity tend to have. Such accounts will, for instance, signal their nature as such by the use of the first person pronoun and the integration of the (named) eyewitness into the narrative itself.
The decisive argument, however, is Matthew's heavy literary dependency on Mark. Whatever eyewitnesses may or may not do, their accounts always offer a distinctive, personalised, often idiosyncratic perspective on events. Matthew does show a willingness to alter Mark, but almost always for structural, stylistic reasons and rarely in order to add material of his own. An eyewitness would have added details. Matthew doesn't. In fact, Matthew makes no changes to Mark a writer in the second century with access to oral sources could not have made. Consequently, the balance of probabilities, in my view, is very strongly in favour of the view that the traditionally assigned name is a misattribution.