by jimwalton » Tue May 30, 2017 5:52 pm
> The fact that there are early elements in Luke is not really an argument to date him early
Oh, I agree. It is one of many many elements to the argument. Never build an argument on such a flimsy reference.
> It does point to the existence of earlier traditions; their historical value is not really relevant here.
Their historical value could be relevant. It depends on the concentration of, quality of, or the ability to date early elements. Everything pertains to the grand picture.
>In early Christian writings “that you may have certainty of the things which you were taught” is a very third-generation-ish thing to say.
Possibly, but not definitively. We don't really know whom Luke had opportunity to interview. The Hebraistic nature of chapters 1-2 suggests a Palestinian source. Paul knew the apostles, so Luke would have been 3rd generation for anything gotten from him. He never specifically claims to have interviewed eyewitnesses (1.2), though he claims they were the source authorities for some of it. But it doesn't give warrant to discredit the material, but only that he is removed (an he admits as much) from having experienced any of this himself.
> All literary activity takes place against a wider context. Thus the first question in any historical research is, what kind of narrative are we dealing with here, how does it relate to similar narratives and what does that tell us about its reliability?
Agreed.
> Infancy narratives
I love what you say about infancy narratives (I just didn't cut and paste your whole paragraph for reference), and I agree. Generally the genealogies of royalty were kept, as well as of priests. Those are the ones in particular where lineage matters most. Interestingly, then, it makes sense that the historical lineage of John matters, coming from a priestly family, and that of Jesus as well, coming from a royal dynastic line. From that vantage point, historicity of this text would be important to the Jews, and they would shun mythology. Secondly, the Jewish people were not characterized by mythology, and actually showed contempt for it. These are two cultural factors that play against your assumptions.
By my recollection, most of the infancy narratives of the ancient world (and correct me if I'm wrong) pertained to deity, not just to miraculous birth. In other words, they were incarnation myths. In Hinduism, Vishnu had 10 incarnations; Krishna was the incarnation of Vishnu. Siddhartha Gautama was supposedly born to a virgin who had been impregnated by a white elephant. Mithras never lived as a man.
The legends of Alexander, Pericles, and Virgil are noticeably and qualitatively different from this narrative. Alexander's mom claimed to have been struck by lightning the night before they had sex, and flames spread widely around her body, claiming possible divinity for Alexander. There were other supposed omens at Alexander's birth to reveal that he was superhuman, if not supernatural. Pericles' mama dreamed she was giving birth to a lion (which may have been symbolic of his importance, so not really a big deal at all). I don't know anything about Virgil's birth stories.
These seem distinctly different from this story about John's birth.
> Theory A makes several such predictions.
I agree that the Theory A template fits Luke: an important personage, remarkable or supernatural occurrences, visions, and prophecies. To me the story of John (Zechariah and Elizabeth) shows qualitative differences from the legends of the other ancients to which we have referred. An angelic visitation, and a prophecy about John—the only really miraculous part is a woman past menopause getting pregnant. That's different than getting struck by lightning and seeing flames all around one's body. According to Google, the oldest woman known to give natural birth was 66 (if I'm reading the stats correctly). Of course, Luke doesn't say she was past menopause, but only "well along in years," implying but not insisting she was past childbearing age. Luke's more important point was that she was barren & childless.
The more pertinent theological issue is: If Luke's purpose is to introduce John and Jesus as partner-agents of God's salvation history, we might expect divine phenomena to accompany their births as well as their lives.
> vv 5-7 is virtually a pastiche of the Septuagint
This is recognizable, and your point is well taken. I agree that it suggests a Septuagintal source rather than an orally told historical narrative. But if Luke is trying to paint a picture of specific OT motifs, symbols, personages and patterns, and since Luke himself was Greek and not Hebrew-Aramaic, the use of Septuagintal language doesn't betray a non-eyewitness source to me, but possibly (and only possibly) he tells the story in well-worn and thoroughly-cliched OT terms and phrases, with which he himself is familiar (possibly as we all often begins stories with "Once upon a time..." which is also an old fashioned way of speaking, or as when old preachers pray with King James English and expressions.) Luke has possibly taken the eyewitness accounts in their Hebraistic style and reworked them in his Greek/Gentile milieu to compose an account in his own style, including Septuagintal imitation.
I don't see theory A as the so-easily-perceived reasonable choice over the two. Why do Matthew and Luke tell such different versions of the infancy narratives? You're right that Theory A explains it easily: they make up what they want to suit their purposes in writing. Theory B, however, allows the biographical styles of the first century to bring out different theological points (as I mentioned before, Matthew comparing Jesus and Moses, Luke comparing Jesus and John the B). We know that ancient biographers, according to the literary context of the era, allowed variation. Luke tells the conversion of Paul 3 times in the book of Acts, and tells it differently each time. Plutarch tells the story of Caesar's assassination 5 times, and tells it differently each time. This style of writing, very acceptable in the ancient world, is a mechanism the Gospel writers use to teach the pertinent truths about the identity of Jesus.
For instance, someone took a photo of Vincent Van Gogh, and Vincent painted a self-portrait. Suppose I were to ask you, "Which one is more realistic?" It's a direct, scientific question, but virtually unanswerable. You would have to ask, "What do mean by realistic? Suppose I asked, "Which is a more accurate portrayal?" It's not really a fair question because one is film and one is interpretive. So which account of the infancy narrative is accurate? Which is historical? Which is more realistic? They are both "paintings," so I'm not sure it's the right question. I'm not trying to dodge the elephant in the room, but only to show that the question itself shows a bit of presentistic bias as we define reliable and historiography. Matthew and Luke are interpretive works, both working within the frame of reference of 1st-century methodology. I'm not so quick to claim they were writing legendary or mythological narratives to bolster their theology. It's more likely to me that, as followers of Christ, they would be trying to tell a truthful tale as "painters" of the invasion of God into human history. As you said, "this doesn't mean theory B can't be right." As a person who doesn't seem to believe in the reality of God or His work in the world, Theory A is the only reasonable conclusion. But if God really exists, and He has made Himself known, "this doesn't mean theory B can't be right."
> Luke's infancy narrative isn't wholly historically plausible
I know we're just in Lk. 1.5-25, but the only thing we have encountered so far that might qualify as historically implausible is an older woman getting pregnant—a phenomenon easily explainable if there is a God who is sovereign over nature who is invading human history for a salvation event. Everything else fits what we know about the culture, their cultic practices, their social concerns and responses, and history to a "T".